Antic Disposition
... cleansed and his past actions would go on punished, unlike Hamlet’s father who was being held in purgatory. Also to support this reason is the way Hamlet is able to change his nature depending on his company. Almost everyone believes his madness is for a different reason. His mother and Claudius think his father’s death has brought it on. Polonius and Ophelia think it’s the fact that Ophelia has rejected his love. And last but not least, Rosencrantz, and Guildenstern think it his ambition to take the throne and become king. Insanity is a state that generally does not change to agree with your surroundings, so to be able to change your ways to make your madness sensible to the people around you seems a little absurd. Another point that has been brought up over the years regarding Hamlet’s madness was did Hamlet actually see the ghost of his father or was this an early sign of insanity. It is thought that because of his deep mourning that perhaps he wanted someone to blame for the death of his father. Someone that he could focus all his energy on, someone that could be punished, and the easiest target was the man who had taken his father’s place. There are contradicting points in this however. One being that when Hamlets’ father’s ghost appeared in Gertrude’s chamber. She could not see him, causing confirmation on Hamlet’s madness for her. From what Gertrude saw, Hamlet was talking to thin air as if someone was there. Was there a ghost there or was it Hamlet’s mental state causing him to see what he needed to see? The theory of Hamlet’s madness being the cause of his seeing his father would be acceptable except for the fact that Hamlet was not the only one to see the ghost. The ghost first appears during Act On, Scene One to Bernardo, Marcellus, and Horatio. It is not until Hamlet is sought out to see the ghost that Hamlet sets eyes on him. This is evidence that Hamlet’s ghost was real, for people other then himself also saw ghost. One of the reasons that do not support Hamlet’s supposed insanity would be through actual comparison to someone who was clearly mad. This person would be none other than his love, Ophelia. Ophelia’s displays of madness are not ones that could be easily ignored. She roams the castle singing songs that do in fact make sense, but at the time are not clear. It is as if a the practical part of her brain has been closed, and new part has been opened which makes her see things in a different light, not the way people of sane mind would see or understand things. Where as Hamlet’s behaviour has been carefully thought out. Another issue to rise would be that Ophelia acted mad until her death. Her death itself could even been seen as a part of her craziness. Before Hamlet’s death he seemed to have a sound mind. He tells Laertes that it was his madness that caused him to murder Polonius. If someone were truly insane, do you think that would be able to think clearly enough to use it as an excuse for their actions? At the end Hamlet is abl...